In
the 19th Century, the Temperance Movement gained considerable steam and worked
its way through America .
The goal was to end the evils of drunkenness by banning alcohol. After
more than a century of effort, the various Temperance groups achieved great
successes in towns, cities, counties, and even states but there was still work
to be done. It was time to go national. However, there was a
problem. The Constitution offered no authority for the Federal government
to outlaw or restrict alcohol; that was a state-issue.
The
Temperance folks were not to be denied. There was a way around that pesky
problem and it was provided by Article V of the Constitution. They could
amend the Constitution. The 18th Amendment was proposed in the summer of
1917 and ratified less than 2 years later. Starting in 1919, the US
government had the authority to restrict alcohol and Prohibition
commenced. Though alcohol consumption in the US
was dramatically reduced (by roughly two-thirds if I recall correctly),
the resulting crime of bootleggers – especially violence like the St. Valentine’s
Day massacre – was viewed as an unacceptable price. Thus, the 21st
Amendment was ratified and the alcohol flowed again in 1933.
You
might ask, "What's your point, Dave?" The point is that in
order for the Federal government to outlaw a substance - alcohol - it was
necessary to amend the Constitution. This all happened in the days prior
to rampant judicial activism so the Constitution wasn't a "Living
Document" yet. So, my question is this: on what basis does the
Federal government outlaw any other substance? I find no amendments
granting the Federal government the authority to ban marijuana, cocaine, or
anything else. Where did they get this new found power that required an
amendment for alcohol?
The
purpose of the Constitution was to limit
the authority of the Federal government. The Founders had experience with
an overbearing monarch and didn't want a repeat performance. They wrote
the Constitution to give the Federal government a limited role, mostly with
regard to foreign policy and interaction among the states. In our era, we
have forgotten this. Government has stuck its fingers in pies where it
has no Constitutional authority to do so. However, since most people are
ignorant of the Constitution, there are few who seek to hold government to
account.
From
my reading of the Constitution, I can find no authority for Social Security,
Medicare, Education, Drugs, Media (e.g. NPR, PBS), et al. Whenever I make
this point, it is inevitable that the ‘General Welfare’ clause is cited as a
catchall. Well, let's see what James
Madison, Father of the Constitution, thought of General Welfare:
With respect to the two
words "general welfare," I have always regarded them as qualified by
the detail of powers connected with them. To take them in a literal and unlimited
sense would be a metamorphosis of the Constitution into a character which there
is a host of proofs was not contemplated by its creators. If the words obtained
so readily a place in the "Articles of Confederation," and received
so little notice in their admission into the present Constitution, and retained
for so long a time a silent place in both, the fairest explanation is, that the
words, in the alternative of meaning nothing or meaning everything, had the
former meaning taken for granted.
It
appears that James Madison is on my side of this argument. The Temperance
Movement respected the Constitution and made the effort to amend the
document. Now, we no longer respect the document and just amend it on the
fly through judicial rulings. It is clear that we have drifted from the
belief that the Constitution was meant to limit government.
Today, the government does many things that the Framers never
intended and the document doesn't condone except when read by activist judges
and elected officials who neglect their oath to uphold the Constitution.
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